# harmonic function and mapping of an annulus

Im working with the book "real and complex analysis" by W. Rudin. There is a part of a proof that goes like this:

Let $$f:A_1 \rightarrow A_2$$ be a holomorphic one-to-one mapping where $$A_1 = A(1,R_1)$$ and $$A_2 = A(1,R_2)$$ are annuli centered at the origin. We define the function

$$u(z) = 2 \log|f(z)|-2\dfrac{\log R_2}{\log R_1}\cdot \log |z|$$

with $$z \in A_1$$. Now let $$\partial$$ be one of the Cauchy-Riemann operators. Since $$\partial \overline f = 0$$ and $$\partial f = f'$$, the chain rule gives

$$\partial(2\log|f|) = \partial(\log \overline f f) = \dfrac{f'}{f},$$

so that

$$(\partial u)(z) = \dfrac{f'(z)}{f(z)}-\dfrac{1}{z}\cdot \dfrac{\log R_2}{\log R_1} \quad (z\in A_1)$$.

Thus $$u$$ is a harmonic function in $$A_1$$. But why?

We dont evaluate the laplace operator. I know a result stating that the real- and imaginary-part of a holomorphic function is also harmonic and harmonic functions on simply-connected domains are in fact the real-part of some holomorphic function. Is something from that being used here?

$$\dfrac{f'(z)}{f(z)}-\dfrac{1}{z}\cdot \dfrac{\log R_2}{\log R_1} \quad (z\in A_1)$$ is obviously analytic so applying $$\bar \partial$$ to it gives zero and the Laplacian is just $$4\bar \partial \partial$$
(as an aside one can prove this directly noting that $$\log f$$ is locally analytic - it may not exist globally in the annulus - so $$\log |f| = \Re \log f$$ is locally harmonic, while obviously $$\log |z|$$ is harmonic and locally harmonic implies globally harmonic by the Laplacian condition)