Im working with the book "real and complex analysis" by W. Rudin. There is a part of a proof that goes like this:
Let $f:A_1 \rightarrow A_2$ be a holomorphic one-to-one mapping where $A_1 = A(1,R_1)$ and $A_2 = A(1,R_2)$ are annuli centered at the origin. We define the function
$$u(z) = 2 \log|f(z)|-2\dfrac{\log R_2}{\log R_1}\cdot \log |z|$$
with $z \in A_1$. Now let $\partial$ be one of the Cauchy-Riemann operators. Since $\partial \overline f = 0$ and $\partial f = f'$, the chain rule gives
$$\partial(2\log|f|) = \partial(\log \overline f f) = \dfrac{f'}{f},$$
so that
$$(\partial u)(z) = \dfrac{f'(z)}{f(z)}-\dfrac{1}{z}\cdot \dfrac{\log R_2}{\log R_1} \quad (z\in A_1)$$.
Thus $u$ is a harmonic function in $A_1$. But why?
We dont evaluate the laplace operator. I know a result stating that the real- and imaginary-part of a holomorphic function is also harmonic and harmonic functions on simply-connected domains are in fact the real-part of some holomorphic function. Is something from that being used here?