Given $X_1, X_2,\ldots,X_n$ are independent random variable such that $\hat{\mu} = \frac{\sum_i^n{X_1 + X_2 + \cdots + X_n}}{n}$. The pdf of normal distribution is $f(x) = \frac{1}{2\pi} e^{\frac{-(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}}$. Also, let $\Phi^{-1}(t) $ be in inverse function of cdf of normal distribution. Define another random variable $I$ such that $I = \hat{\mu} - \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}} \Phi^{-1}(q)$ where $q \in (0, 1).$
Q: I need to show that $P(I < \mu) = q.$ For this question, I think change of variable technique is the only way to prove the statement. Is there any other method to get around messy calculation?