Does $\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 1$ imply $\lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{f(x+1)-f(x)}{g(x+1)-g(x)} = 1$ for convex functions? Let $f,g$ be convex functions on $[0,\infty)$ such that $\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 1$ and $\lim_{x\to +\infty} g(x) = +\infty$.

Is it always true that $\lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{f(x+1)-f(x)}{g(x+1)-g(x)} = 1$?

I can prove it when $g(x)=x$ and $g(x) = x^2$.
Edit. It is actually not so hard to show it works more generally when $g(x) = x^\alpha$ for any $\alpha \geq 1$.
The question can also be asked with series as a partial converse to the Stolz-Cesaro Theorem:

Let $a$ and $b$ be increasing sequences such that and $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} \sum_{k=1}^n b_k = +\infty$.
Does $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} \dfrac{\sum_{k=1}^n a_k}{\sum_{k=1}^n b_k} = 1$ imply $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} \dfrac{a_n}{b_n} = 1$?

 A: I don't think so.
Counter example for the $a_k$, $b_k$ case:
$$
a_k = 2^{\lfloor \log_2(k) \rfloor}  \quad\quad \text{and} \quad\quad b_k = 2^{\lfloor \log_2(k+1) \rfloor}
$$
So $a_k$ and $b_k$ are the same in most cases, except when $k=2^n-1$, we have $a_k=2^{(n-1)}, b_k=2^n$. 
So apparently $a_{k+1}\geq a_k$, $b_{k+1}\geq b_k$, and $\lim_{k\to\infty}\frac{a_k}{b_k}$ does not exist
On the other hand, it can be shown that
$$
b_k\geq a_k\geq k/2\text{, So }\sum_{k=1}^N b_k \geq \sum_{k=1}^N a_k = \mathcal{O}(N^2)
$$
$$
\sum_{k=1}^N b_k - \sum_{k=1}^N a_k \leq N+\frac{N}{2} + \frac{N}{4} + .... \approx 2N
$$
Thus
$$
\lim_{N\to\infty} \frac{\sum_{k=1}^N b_k - \sum_{k=1}^N a_k}{\sum_{k=1}^N b_k} = \lim_{N\to\infty}\mathcal{O}(\frac{N}{N^2}) = 0
$$
In summary, in this example, $a_k$ and $b_k$ are increasing sequences with $\sum_{k=1}^N a_k = + \infty$, and $\sum_{k=1}^N b_k = + \infty$, 
We also have 
$$
\lim_{N\to\infty} \frac{\sum_{k=1}^N a_k}{\sum_{k=1}^N b_k} =1
$$
but $\lim_{k\to\infty}\frac{a_k}{b_k}$ does not exist.
