I'm learning about the concept of a free abelian group. First question: nowhere it is stated that these groups cannot be finite, but the definition seems to imply it. Is this true?
Second question: an isomorphism to a free abelian group $A = \left< S \right> = \left< \{s_i\}_{i=1}^n \right>$ is given as
\begin{eqnarray*} &ℤ^n &\tilde\longrightarrow A \\ &(c_i)_{i=1}^n &\mapsto \sum_{s ∈ S} c_ss \end{eqnarray*}
Then a claim is made that I don't understand:
"The induced isomorphism $A/2A \cong (ℤ/2ℤ)^n$ now shows that $A/2A$ is of order $2^n$, from which we conclude that the rank of $A$ does not depend on the choice of a basis for $A$"
What is this induced isomorphism? Is it induced by the (first) Isomorphism Theorem? What exactly is $A/2A$, and why are we looking at it? How is the final conclusion drawn?