$\left(\textit{A.C.CLAIRAUT}\right)$
Suppose that $U$ is an open connected set in $\mathbf{R}^n,$ that $x_0\in U,$ and that $f:U\rightarrow \mathbf{R}.$Its mixed second partial derivatives $f_{ji},f_{ij} (1\leq i<j \leq n) $ exist on $U$. If $f_{ji},f_{ij}$ are continuous at $x=x_0$, then$f_{ji}(x_0)=f_{ij}(x_0).$
By the Clairaut's theorem,the following proposition can be easily proved applying the induction method.
$\textbf{Proposition}$
$U$ is an open connected set in $\mathbf{R}^n.$ If $f:U\rightarrow \mathbf{R}$ all of whose partial derivatives up to $k$ are$\underline{\text{ defined and continuous in } U }$$(i.e.f\in C^{k}(U))$, then for any fixed $r (2\leq r\leq k),$the value $\partial_{i_1\cdots i_r}f(x)$ of the partial derivative remains the same for any permutation of the indices $i_1\cdots i_r (1\leq i_{1},\cdots,i_{r}\leq n).$
$\textbf{My Question:}$
Now we consider an elementary question,slightly modify the proposition'condition:replacing by " If $f:U\rightarrow \mathbf{R}$ all of whose partial derivatives up to order $k$ are$\underline{\text{defined in } U\text{ and continuous at } x_{0}\in U.}$ " Whether we also get that the value of $\partial_{i_1\cdots i_r}f(x)$ at $x=x_{0}$ is independent of the order $i_1\cdots i_r (1\leq i_{1},\cdots,i_{r}\leq n)$, for any fixed $r (2\leq r\leq k)$?When $k>2$,the conclusion will not holds (I think so).But I need some counterexamples to verify!