I'm trying to prove that $\Gamma \vdash \phi$ implies $\Gamma \vDash \phi$ (for Institutionistic propositional logic and Heying algebras), by induction with respect to natural deduction proofs of Intuitionistic propositional logic, as instructed in the book I'm learning from - "Lectures on the Curry-Howard Isomorphism" - 1998 version (https://disi.unitn.it/~bernardi/RSISE11/Papers/curry-howard.pdf). I should note that I'm not sure if Heyting algebras are defined in the same way as the standard literature, as it seems like it's a bit different from the formal definition in the Wikipedia page on Heyting algebra, so I would just say that the definition I'm working from is definition 2.4.1 in page 31 in the book mentioned above. Other definitions I use in the proof are definition 2.2.4 in page 26, definition 2.4.4 in page 32 and definition 2.4.5 in page 32.
So I have an incomplete proof, that I would like to know how I should complete, and weather there is any problem with it.
The Proof: Before we proceed to the induction proof it's useful to prove the following: since $a \leq 1$, for all $a \in H$, $a \cup 1 = 1$. In addition, $a \cap 1 = a$, therefore $1 \leq a \Rightarrow a$, hence $a \Rightarrow a = 1$ which implies $a \cap b \leq a$, for all $b \in H$. Now for the induction, first suppose that $\phi$ is an axiom of $\Gamma$, hence $\phi \in \Gamma$. Then given $\mathcal{H}$ and $v$, suppose $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash \Gamma$. Since $\phi \in \Gamma$, we get $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash \phi$ and thus $\Gamma \vDash \phi$. If $\phi$ is not an axiom of $\Gamma$, assume the sons of $\Gamma \vdash \phi$, p osses the desired property (we view natural deduction proofs of intuitionistic logic as trees with the conclusion as root). Then the sons are of one of the following forms:
- $\Gamma \vdash p$ $\Gamma \vdash q$ ;
- $\Gamma \vdash p$ ;
- $\Delta \vdash p$, with $\Gamma \subseteq \Delta$ ;
- $\Delta \vdash p$ $K \vdash q$ $\Gamma \vdash r$, with $\Gamma \subseteq \Delta, K$ .
Given $\mathcal{H}$ and $v$, suppose $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash \Gamma$, and we examine each case:
- We have $v(p) = 1$ and $v(q) = 1$. If $\phi = p \wedge q$, then $v(\phi) = v(p \wedge q) = v(p) \cap v(q) = 1$. If $p = q \rightarrow \phi$, then $1 = v(p) = v(q \rightarrow \phi) = v(q) \Rightarrow v(\phi) = 1 \Rightarrow v(\phi)$, hence $v(\phi) = 1 \cup v(\phi) = 1$.
- We have $v(p) = 1$. If $p = \bot$, then $v(p) = 0$, therefore $0=1$, thus $t = 1$ for all $t \in H$, and in particular $v(\phi) = 1$. If $\phi = p \vee \psi$, then $v(\phi) = v(p \vee \psi) = v(p) \cup v(\psi) = 1 \cup v(\psi) =1$. If $p = \phi \wedge \psi$, then $1 = v(p) = v(\phi) \cap v(\psi) \leq v(\phi)$, hence $v(\phi) = 1$.
- We have $\Gamma \cup \{x\} \vDash p$, where $\phi = x \rightarrow p$. Therefore, if $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash \Gamma \cup \{x\}$, that is $v(x) = 1$ and for every $t \in \Gamma$, $v(t) = 1$, then $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash p$, that is $v(p) = 1$. Thus, $v(\phi) = v(x \rightarrow p) = v(x) \Rightarrow v(p)$. If $v(x) = 1$, then $v(\phi) = 1 \Rightarrow 1 = 1$. If $v(\phi) \neq 1$, then $\dots$ [Need help to complete]
We have $\Gamma \cup \{x\} \vDash \phi$, $\Gamma \cup \{y\} \vDash \phi$ and $\Gamma \vDash x \vee y$, i.e.:
- If $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash \Gamma \cup \{x\}$, that is $v(x) = 1$ and $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash \Gamma$, then $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash \phi$, that is $v(\phi) = 1$.
- If $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash \Gamma \cup \{y\}$, that is $v(y) = 1$ and $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash \Gamma$, then $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash \phi$, that is $v(\phi) = 1$.
- If $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash \Gamma$, then $\mathcal{H}, v \vDash x \vee y$, that is $v(x \vee y) = 1$.
So we got $v(x \vee y) = v(x) \cup v(y) = 1$, and we need to show that either $v(x) = 1$ or $v(y) = 1$ to obtain the desired result. $\dots$ [Need help to complete]