We often apply formal power series in places where it seems, at face value, somewhat suspect to do so. I'm primarily interested in why these formal manipulations work so broadly.
A prime example comes from Concrete Mathematics, page 470-471. Here, $(\Delta f)(x) = f(x+1) - f(x)$, and $Df = f'$
We can express $\Delta$ in terms of $D$ using Taylor's formula as follows:
$f(x + \epsilon) = f(x) + \frac{f'(x)}{1!}\epsilon + \frac{f''(x)}{2!}\epsilon^2 + \cdots$
Setting $\epsilon = 1$ tells us that
$\Delta f(x) = \\ f(x+1) - f(x) = \\ f'(x)/1! + f''(x)/2! + f'''(x)/3! + \cdots = \\ (D/1! + D^2/2! + D^3/3! + \cdots)f(x) = \\ (e^D - 1)f(x) $
The authors continue, saying the inverse operator $\sum = 1/\Delta$ should thus be $1/(e^D - 1)$. (Here $\sum$ is meant as an operator, though the authors continue using $\sum$ in its traditional context as well, as in the following power series.)
We recognize $z/(e^z-1) = \sum B_k z^k/k!$ as a known power series, and conclude, somewhat surprisingly, that
$\sum = \frac{B_0}{D} + \frac{B_1}{1!} + \frac{B_2}{2!}D + \frac{B_3}{3!}D^2 + \cdots = \int + \sum \frac{B_k}{k!}D^{k-1}$
This is the asymptotic expansionfor the Euler Summation Formula.
This derivation seems like nonsense, except for the fact that it isn't. We get a reasonable result out the other side, and every step makes sense if you're willing to suspend your disbelief.
I have seen multiple other arguments just like this, where we flippantly go back and forth between functions and their series, even in places where a topology is not clearly visible to make sense of the infinite sums!
One idea that I had comes from a topic in Knapp's Basic Algebra, the Permanence of Identities (page 212-214). The idea here is that equations which are true over $\mathbb{Z}[x_1,\ldots,x_n]$ ought to remain true over general rings when we substitute ring elements for the $x_i$. While Knapp doesn't dwell on it, I justified this to myself since $\mathbb{Z}[x_1, \ldots, x_n]$ is initial among rings with $n$ distinguished elements, and since ring homs preserve truth, we get that a formula $p = q$ in this polynomial ring implies $p(r_1,\ldots,r_n) = q(r_1,\ldots,r_n)$ is true of any $r_i$ in any (commutative) ring $R$.
By analogy, it seems reasonable that a ring of formal power series (perhaps with rational coefficients?) should be initial in a suitable category, and that the identities we derive by working formally will then be true in, say, rings of operators (which would justify the above argument, modulo convergence issues).
Finally, then,
Does anybody have references for the soundness of power-series methods being applied in somewhat surprising settings? Additionally, can the argument I've given be made formal? Are there broad outlines for when these formal methods are permissible, and when (if ever) they lead us astray?
Thanks in advance ^_^