The first result is the roll of a 20 sided die The second result is an independent roll of a 20 sided die that has its roll multiplied by 2
What is the probability that the first result is greater than or equal to the the second result?
I thought it would be easier to calculate the probability of failure (that the second is result is strictly greater than the first) and then from there derive the probability of success and so I started by assuming that a roll of $11$ or higher on the second die is an instant failure ($\dfrac{10}{20}$). On a similar note a roll of $1$ on the first die would result in instant failure ($\dfrac{1}{20}$). Then we could use a summation to calculate the number of times a roll on the first die would beat a roll on the second die. $$\dfrac{10}{20}\times\dfrac{19}{20}\sum_{n=2}^{20}\dfrac{1}{19}\times(1-\dfrac{1}{2}\times\dfrac{n}{10})$$ I derived the above equation from the fact that the only times the first roll has a chance of success is if the result of the second roll is $1-10$ which has a probability of $\dfrac{10}{20}$. In addition the first roll cannot be a $1$ which has a probability of $\dfrac{19}{20}$. The final condition is that the roll of the first die is strictly less than $2\times$ the roll of the second die, so we create a summation that traverses all of the possible rolls on the first die from $2-20$. The odds of each roll on the first die is $\dfrac{1}{19}$ and the odds that it is strictly less than a roll on the second die is $1-\dfrac{1}{2} \times \dfrac{n}{20}$. In other words it is $1 - $ the number of times the first roll would be greater than or equal to the second roll. This brings the full equation to:
$$\dfrac{10}{20} + \dfrac{1}{20} + \dfrac{10}{20}\times\dfrac{19}{20}\sum_{n=2}^{20}\dfrac{1}{19}\times(1-\dfrac{1}{2}\times\dfrac{n}{10})$$
With the above equation I obtained the probability 0.76375, which again is the probability that the second roll is strictly greater than the first, but which we can use to obtain the probability that the first roll will be greater than or equal to the second as such: $1 - 0.76375 = 0.23625$ But when I map out the correct number of victories for the first roll over the second I get:
|---------------------|------------------|---------------------|------------------|
| First Roll | # Victories | First Roll | # Victories |
|---------------------|------------------|---------------------|------------------|
| 1 | 0 | 11 | 5 |
|---------------------|------------------|---------------------|------------------|
| 2 | 1 | 12 | 6 |
|---------------------|------------------|---------------------|------------------|
| 3 | 1 | 13 | 6 |
|---------------------|------------------|---------------------|------------------|
| 4 | 2 | 14 | 7 |
|---------------------|------------------|---------------------|------------------|
| 5 | 2 | 15 | 7 |
|---------------------|------------------|---------------------|------------------|
| 6 | 3 | 16 | 8 |
|---------------------|------------------|---------------------|------------------|
| 7 | 3 | 17 | 8 |
|---------------------|------------------|---------------------|------------------|
| 8 | 4 | 18 | 9 |
|---------------------|------------------|---------------------|------------------|
| 9 | 4 | 19 | 9 |
|---------------------|------------------|---------------------|------------------|
| 10 | 5 | 20 | 10 |
|---------------------|------------------|---------------------|------------------|
The average of the above being: $\dfrac{victories}{total} = \dfrac{100}{400} = 0.25$
So the equation I derived was close but that doesn't account for much in mathematics so any help that can be given would be greatly appreciated, thank you in advance.
As a side, is there any chance that the derived formula can be constructed so that it is applicable to any factor for the second roll (for example $\times 5$ instead of $\times 2$)?