Let $E$ be a vector space of finite dimension $n$. Let $p\ge 1$, $g, f_1, \ldots, f_p\in\mathcal{L}(E)$ be such that $$\bigcap_{i=1}^p\mathrm{ker}f_i\subseteq \mathrm{ker} g$$ Show that their exists $h_1, \ldots, h_p\in \mathcal{L}(E)$ such that $$ g = \sum_{i=1}^{p} h_i\circ f_i$$
I can show the result for $p=1$, by studying $\varphi : h\in\mathcal{L}(E)\mapsto h\circ f$. It is easy to see that $\ker\varphi = \{h\mid \mathrm{Im} f\subseteq\ker h\}$ so that $\dim\ker\varphi = (n-\mathrm{rk} f)\cdot n = n\cdot \dim\ker f$. So that by rank theorem, $\mathrm{rank}\varphi = n(n - \dim\ker f) = n\cdot\mathrm{rank}(f)$ .
To conclure, notice that $\mathrm{Im}(f) \subseteq \{h\mid \ker f\subseteq \ker h\}$ but the last vector-space is of dimension $n\cdot\mathrm{rank}(f)$ so we have equality. Therefore, $g\in \mathrm{Im}\varphi$
But how can one generalize that to $p$ linear maps ? The proof for $p=1$ can also be done by choosing a nice basis for example (which then also works in infinite dimension). To come back to the general case, I thought of looking at the following linear transformation : $$ \phi :x\mapsto (f_1(x), \ldots, f_p(x))$$ So that $\ker\phi = \displaystyle\bigcap_{i=1}^n \ker f_i$ but now, $\phi\in\mathcal{L}(E, E^p)$. I thought of using $g':x\mapsto (g(x), \ldots, g(x))$ but the previous proof does not work. Any ideas ?