Assume we have a probability space $(\Omega, \mathscr{F},P)$. As a part of a proof I found the following:
If $X \in L^1$, then for any $\epsilon >0$, there exists some $\delta > 0$ such that $$ P(F)<\delta \implies E[|X|1_F]< \epsilon.$$
I have two questions:
1) They don't say anything about the set $F.$ Should I interpret the question above as the following?
If $X \in L^1$, then for any $\epsilon >0$, there exists some $\delta > 0$ such that for all $F \in \mathscr{F}$ $$ P(F)<\delta \implies E[|X|1_F]< \epsilon.$$
2) Can I use Holder inequality with $q= \infty$ to prove 1)? Is correct the following?
Since $X \in L^1$ we have $\int_{\Omega}|X|dP = C$ for some $C \in \mathbb{R}^+.$ Also, by hypothesis, $P(F)= \int_{\Omega} 1_F dP < \delta.$ So choosing $\delta_{\epsilon} < \frac{\epsilon}{C}$ we have
\begin{align*} E[|X|1_F] &= \left| \int_{\Omega}|X| 1_F dP \right| \\ &\leq \int_{\Omega}|X| dP \int_{\Omega} |1_F|^{\infty} dP \tag*{(*)} \\ &= C \delta \\ &< \epsilon. \end{align*} Where in step (*) I've used Holder inequality with $p=1$ and $q=\infty.$