1
$\begingroup$

Assume we have a probability space $(\Omega, \mathscr{F},P)$. As a part of a proof I found the following:

If $X \in L^1$, then for any $\epsilon >0$, there exists some $\delta > 0$ such that $$ P(F)<\delta \implies E[|X|1_F]< \epsilon.$$

I have two questions:

1) They don't say anything about the set $F.$ Should I interpret the question above as the following?

If $X \in L^1$, then for any $\epsilon >0$, there exists some $\delta > 0$ such that for all $F \in \mathscr{F}$ $$ P(F)<\delta \implies E[|X|1_F]< \epsilon.$$

2) Can I use Holder inequality with $q= \infty$ to prove 1)? Is correct the following?

Since $X \in L^1$ we have $\int_{\Omega}|X|dP = C$ for some $C \in \mathbb{R}^+.$ Also, by hypothesis, $P(F)= \int_{\Omega} 1_F dP < \delta.$ So choosing $\delta_{\epsilon} < \frac{\epsilon}{C}$ we have

\begin{align*} E[|X|1_F] &= \left| \int_{\Omega}|X| 1_F dP \right| \\ &\leq \int_{\Omega}|X| dP \int_{\Omega} |1_F|^{\infty} dP \tag*{(*)} \\ &= C \delta \\ &< \epsilon. \end{align*} Where in step (*) I've used Holder inequality with $p=1$ and $q=\infty.$

$\endgroup$
5
  • $\begingroup$ Do we define $ P(F) $ to be the outer measure of $ F $ with respect to measurable sets that contain $ F $, i.e., $ P(F) := \inf_{F' \in \mathscr{F}}{ P(F') } $? If so, then proving your statement (1) immediately implies the statement for all $ F $. $\endgroup$
    – Jake Mirra
    Commented Jan 1, 2020 at 19:06
  • $\begingroup$ Also your notation $ |1_F|^\infty $ is strange, and it seems like faulty reasoning. The $ L^\infty $-norm of $ |1_F| $ is $ 1 $ which is unhelpful to proving your statement. Instead, you want to use the dominated convergence theorem. $\endgroup$
    – Jake Mirra
    Commented Jan 1, 2020 at 19:10
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you. I'll have a look at your answer in a second but what is wrong with this $$E[|X|1_F] = \left| \int_{\Omega}|X| 1_F dP \right| = \left(\int_{\Omega}|X| dP \right) ||1_F||^{\infty}$$? $\endgroup$
    – UBM
    Commented Jan 1, 2020 at 19:17
  • $\begingroup$ The problem is that it doesn't give you the estimate you want since $ ||1_F||^\infty = 1 $ :). By the way, the notation $ ||1_F||_\infty $ is more common. $\endgroup$
    – Jake Mirra
    Commented Jan 1, 2020 at 19:19
  • $\begingroup$ oh, yes you are right, I was mistakenly assuming $P(F) = ||1_F||^{\infty}<\delta.$ I'll have a look at your answer then. $\endgroup$
    – UBM
    Commented Jan 1, 2020 at 19:23

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

Usually this lemma is not proven by Holder inequality, but dominated convergence theorem. Suppose the claim (1) is false. Then for some $ \varepsilon > 0 $ there exists a sequence $ F_n $ with $ P(F_n) \rightarrow 0 $ but $ E[X|1_{F_n}] > \varepsilon $. But on the other hand, there is a subsequence $ f_{n_j} := X \cdot 1_{F_{n_j}} $ that is dominated by the integrable function $ |X| $ and converging to zero almost everywhere. The dominated convergence theorem states that $ E[X|1_{F_{n_j}}] \rightarrow 0 $, contradicting our earlier statement that these numbers are greater than $ \varepsilon $. There is probably a direct proof of this, but this was what came to mind, so I wrote it down :) Hope it helps.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ In case you're curious about my claim about there being such a subsequence $ n_j $, let $ n_j $ be such that $ P(F_{n_j}) < 2^{-j} $. $\endgroup$
    – Jake Mirra
    Commented Jan 1, 2020 at 19:16
  • $\begingroup$ I noticed, it looks like you're learning integration theory in the context of a probability class, which is not optimal. You're better off taking a class in standard analysis and then transferring that knowledge to probability IMO. $\endgroup$
    – Jake Mirra
    Commented Jan 1, 2020 at 19:18
  • $\begingroup$ Ok, it's clear. Thank you very much. $\endgroup$
    – UBM
    Commented Jan 1, 2020 at 20:21

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .