If there is a finite set of $k$ integers how can I prove that there is a coprime for each number in the set?
That is pretty obvious but what is the formal way to prove this?
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It only takes a minute to sign up.
Sign up to join this communityIf there is a finite set of $k$ integers how can I prove that there is a coprime for each number in the set?
That is pretty obvious but what is the formal way to prove this?
Take any prime number strictly greater than every element in the set. (Such prime does exist because the set is finite and there are infinitely many prime numbers).
You are asking to prove a false thing, since you are implicitely assuming $0 \not \in \mathcal{S}$, where $\mathcal{S}:=\{a_1,\ldots,a_k\}\subseteq \mathbb{Z}$ for some $k \in \mathbb{N} \setminus \{0\}$ is your fixed set. Indeed, $\text{gcd}(0,z)=z$ for all $z \in \mathbb{Z}\setminus \{0\}$, so that $0\not\in \mathcal{S}$ is a necessary condition. But it's also sufficient: define the radical $$\text{rad}\colon \mathbb{Z} \setminus \{0\} \to \mathbb{N}\colon z \mapsto \prod_{p \in \mathbb{P}:\text{ }p\mid z^2}{p},$$ and then the (positive squarefree) integer $$A:=\text{rad}\left(\prod_{1\le i\le k}{|a_i|}\right)=\text{lcm}\left(\text{rad}(|a_1|),\ldots,\text{rad}(|a_k|)\right).$$ It's clear that for all $z \in \mathbb{Z}$ we have $$\text{gcd}(z,A)=1\text{ iff }\text{gcd}(z,a_i)=1 \text{ for all }i=1,\ldots,k$$ Defin $\mathcal{Z}$ the set of such integers. It's clear that $|\mathcal{Z}|=\infty$, for example by Chinese remainder theorem, or for example taking a particular classes of integers, like $kA\pm 1$ for $k \in \mathbb{Z}$. It's even possible to give asymptotic cardinality for $\mathcal{Z}$, indeed $$|\mathcal{Z} \cap [-x,x]| \sim 2x\frac{\varphi(A)}{A}\text{ with }x\to +\infty.$$ It shows a bit stronger fact: If $\omega(\text{rad}\left(\prod_{s \in \mathcal{S}}{s}\right))$ is finite (allowing even a not finite set $\mathcal{S}$, then there exists positive constants $A,B$ such that $$Ax<|\mathcal{Z}\cap [-x,x]|<Bx$$ for all positive integers $x$.
A more interesting exercise can be the fact that $\omega(A) \to \infty$ implies $\frac{\varphi(A)}{A} \to 0$.
Edit: as usual $\varphi:\mathbb{N}\setminus \{0\} \to \mathbb{N}:n \mapsto |\{m \in \mathbb{N}\setminus \{0\}:\text{gcd}(m,n)=1\}|$ denotes the Euler indicator, and $\omega: \mathbb{N}\setminus \{0,1\} \to \mathbb{N}:n \mapsto |\{p \in \mathbb{P}:p\mid n\}|$ represents the number of prime divisors of a integer $n\ge 2$..