Let $I_n := [a_n,b_n], n \in \mathbb{N}$ a sequence of intervals in $\mathbb{R}$ with $I_{j+1} \subset I_j$ for all $j \in \mathbb{N}$ and $\lim_{n \to \infty} (b_n - a_n) = 0.$
How can one prove that
$$\bigcap_{j \in \mathbb{N}} I_j $$
consists of one point?
In another thread I've read the following:
I arrived at the above problem while trying to show the following (known as Bonferroni inequalities):
Let $A_1, \ldots, A_n$ be events of a probability space. For a subset $I$ of $\{1,\ldots, n\}$, write $A_I$ to denote $\bigcap_{j\in I}A_j$. Further, denote $\sum_{|I|=i}P(A_I)$ as $\sigma_i$. We agree by convention that $\sigma_0=1$.
But here it is only written with "We agree by convention".