This question arose from a statement from Munkres Section 69 that is seeming contradictory to his definition of free group.
He defines the free group in the following way:
Let $\{a_{\alpha}\}$ be a family of elements of a group $G$. Suppose each $a_{\alpha}$ generates an infinite cyclic subgroup $G_{\alpha}$ of $G$. If $G$ is the free product of the groups $\{G_{\alpha}\}$, then $G$ is said to be a free group, and the family $\{a_{\alpha}\}$ is called a system of free generators for $G$.
Then on the page 424, when he talked about generators and relations, he said
Given $G$, suppose we are given a family $\{a_{\alpha}\}_{\alpha\in J}$ of generators of $G$. Let $F$ be the free group on the element $\{a_{\alpha}\}$. Then the obvious map $h(a_{\alpha})=a_{\alpha}$ of these elements into $G$ extends to a homomorphism $h:F\longrightarrow G$ that is surjective.
I have no problem with the third sentence, it is the extension theorem, or universal mapping property.
However, in the second sentence, he directly put $F$ to be free group on $\{a_{\alpha}\}$. Can he do that? I mean, in the definition, he requires $a_{\alpha}$ generates an infinite cyclic group, but here perhaps some $a_{\alpha}$ has finite order, which cannot generate infinite cyclic group.
I tried generate such free group on a subset of $\{a_{\alpha}\}$ which consists of all $a_{\alpha}$ with infinite order. But then $h$ cannot be surjective.
What am I missing here? Thank you!