Let $H_i$ be a $\mathbb C$-Hilbert space, $T$ be a linear operator from $H_1\to H_2$ and $T^\ast$ be a linear operator from $H_2$ to $H_1$ with $$\langle T^\ast y,x\rangle_{H_1}=\langle y,Tx\rangle_{H_2}\;\;\;\text{for all }x\in\mathcal D(T)\text{ and }y\in\mathcal D(T^\ast)\tag1.$$
We easily see that $T$ is unique if and only $\mathcal D(T)^\perp=\{0\}$:
- Let $y\in H_2$ and $z,\tilde z\in H_1$ with $$\langle\tilde z,x\rangle_{H_1}=\langle z,x\rangle_{H_1}=\langle y,Tx\rangle_{H_2}\;\;\;\text{for all }x\in\mathcal D(T)\tag2.$$
- Then, $$\langle\tilde z-z,x\rangle_{H_1}\;\;\;\text{for all }x\in\mathcal D(T)\tag3$$ and hence $$\tilde z-z\in\mathcal D(T)^\perp\tag4.$$
Now I've read that $T^\ast$ exists if and only if $T$ is continuous, but is the necessity really true?
Clearly, if $T$ is continuous, then $T^\ast$ exists:
- Let $y\in H_2$.
- If $T$ is continuous, then $$\langle y,\;\cdot\;\rangle_{H_2}\circ T\in H_1'\tag5$$ and ence there is a unique $z\in H_1$ with $$\langle z,\;\cdot\;\rangle_{H_1}=\langle y,\;\cdot\;\rangle_{H_2}\circ T\tag6$$ by Riesz' representation theorem.
- It's easy to see that the dependence of $z$ on $y$ is linear.
Question 1: Does the existence of $T^\ast$ really imply the continuity of $T$? If not, is there an other equivalent criterion to the existence of $T^\ast$?
Question 2: Am I missing something or does the continuity of $T$ even imply the uniqueness of $T^\ast$ (since the $z$ in $(6)$ is uniquely determined by Riesz' representation theorem)?