A function $f:A \subseteq \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is uniformly continuous if $\forall \epsilon>0$ $\exists \delta>0$ such that $\forall x \in A and \forall y \in A$ with $|x-y|\leq \delta$ we have $|f(x)-f(y)|\leq \epsilon$
Is the negation:
There exists and $\epsilon>0$ such that $\forall \delta>0$ there exists $x\in A$ or there exists $y\in A$ such that $|x-y|\leq \delta$ and $|f(x)-f(y)|\geq \epsilon$?
Show that $f:(0,1)\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x)=\frac{1}{x}$ is not uniformly continuous.
proof: Let $\epsilon=1$ let $\delta>0$ arbitrary. Set $x\in (0,1)$ to be such that $x<\frac{\delta}{1+\delta}$ and $y= x+\delta$ . Then $|\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{x+\delta}|$ $=$ $|\frac{\delta}{x(x+\delta)}|$ $\geq$ $\frac{\delta}{x(1+\delta)}>1$
Is the proof correct? The only question I have is why is $y=x+\delta$ guaranteed to be in $(0,1)$?