my professor gives me this result :
Let $0<x_i<\frac{\pi}{2}$ be $n$ real numbers then we have : $$\Big(\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i\Big)\Big(\tan\Big(\frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i^2}{\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i}\Big)\Big)\Big(\sum_{i=1}^{n}\tan(x_i)\Big)\geq n\Big(\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i\tan(x_i)\Big)\tan\Big(\frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i}{n}\Big)$$
The case $n=1$ is an equality .
For the case $n=2$ i try to use the derivatives but it's very ugly .
I try to use the inequality with the conidtion above :
$$\tan(x)\geq x$$
But the inequality is too sharp .
I try also a reasoning with induction but I can't prove some steps.
So any hints would be very appreciated .
Thanks a lot for sharing your time and knowledge .