I came across this amazing fact on Twitter. $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{\log\left(F_1 \cdots F_n\right)}{\log \text{LCM}\left(F_1, \ldots, F_n\right)} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$$
where $F_i$ is the $i$th Fibonacci number and LCM = Least Common Multiple. This is such an interesting link between the Fibonacci numbers (which are closely linked to the Golden Ratio $\varphi$) and $\pi$. I'm trying to prove why this is the case.
I know that, for the numerator, it'll become something like \begin{align} \log\left(F_1 \cdots F_n\right) &\sim \log\left(\varphi^1 \cdots \varphi^n\right) \\ &\sim \frac{\log \varphi}{2} n^2 \end{align}
Reverse engineering, that tells me that the denominator will turn out to be the same, but with an extra factor of $\frac{6}{\pi^2}$. What I'm wondering is, how to prove that this will be the case? Some relevant tools might be that $$\prod_i \left(1 - \frac{1}{p_i^2}\right) = \frac{6}{\pi^2}$$, where $p_i$ is the $i$th prime. Also, it's not hard to show that the LCM of the first $n$ natural numbers is roughly $e^n$. Finally, the probability that the $n$th Fibonacci is prime is roughly $\sim\frac{\log\varphi}{n}$ I think (though I'm not actually sure if this has been proven).
As an aside, even though it's cool that this is done with the Fibonacci sequence, judging by how the $\varphi$ factor just cleanly cancels on top and bottom, I have a feeling that this fact might be true for other linear integer recurrence relations that have an exploding dominant eigenvalue.