The Lebesgue integral of a non-negative function $f$ is defined as:
$$\int f(x)\,dx=\sup_g \int g(x)\,dx,$$
where the supremum is taken over all measurable functions $g$ such that $0\leq g\leq f$, and $g$ is bounded and supported on a set of finite measure. (*)
My Question
When we take the supremum, do we assume the support of $g$ is all same for the measurable functions $g$?
In effect, is this what we are doing in the definition? Consider all measurable functions $g$ that satisfies (*). Consider their Lebesgue integration and pick the least upper bound of that set. This set is a set of numbers (e.g. Lebesgue measure) each corresponding to the Lebesgue integration number of each $g$.
Why does this definition make sense when we consider non-negative functions?
Reference: $\textit{Real Analysis: Measure Theory, Integration, and Hilbert Spaces}$. Elias M. Stein, Rami Shakarchi. Princeton University Press, 2009.