0
$\begingroup$

I thought that this question would simply be that there are 40 2-digit integers so you have a $\frac{40}{50}$ chance of getting a 2-digit integer via relative frequency.

However the answer says that it is 0.82, and it doesn’t show any work. Am I thinking about this problem in the wrong way?

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ That's because there are forty-one positive integers between $1$ and $50$ inclusive. $\endgroup$ – Angina Seng Sep 29 '19 at 18:22
  • $\begingroup$ There are only $9$ positive one-digit integers $\endgroup$ – Hagen von Eitzen Sep 29 '19 at 18:24
  • $\begingroup$ I think you meant, Lord Shark, that there are forty-one two-digit positive integers between 1 and 5 inclusive. $\endgroup$ – John Hughes Sep 29 '19 at 18:28
5
$\begingroup$

The two-digit numbers between $1$ and $50$ are from $10$ to $50$ (both included). This amounts to $41$ numbers to choose from. Hence probability will be ${41\over 50}$.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.