I thought that this question would simply be that there are 40 2-digit integers so you have a $\frac{40}{50}$ chance of getting a 2-digit integer via relative frequency.

However the answer says that it is 0.82, and it doesn’t show any work. Am I thinking about this problem in the wrong way?

  • $\begingroup$ That's because there are forty-one positive integers between $1$ and $50$ inclusive. $\endgroup$ – Angina Seng Sep 29 '19 at 18:22
  • $\begingroup$ There are only $9$ positive one-digit integers $\endgroup$ – Hagen von Eitzen Sep 29 '19 at 18:24
  • $\begingroup$ I think you meant, Lord Shark, that there are forty-one two-digit positive integers between 1 and 5 inclusive. $\endgroup$ – John Hughes Sep 29 '19 at 18:28

The two-digit numbers between $1$ and $50$ are from $10$ to $50$ (both included). This amounts to $41$ numbers to choose from. Hence probability will be ${41\over 50}$.


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