# how to tackle this partial differentiation problem [duplicate]

show that if $$f(x, y, z)=0$$ then $$\left ( \partial x \over \partial y \right )_{z}\left ( \partial y \over \partial z \right )_{x}\left ( \partial z \over \partial x \right )_{y}=-1$$

I don't know how to tackle this problem although I've tried.

• Could you show your working then? There are many proofs of this online, but if you have your working and are stuck on a certain step, we can better help you. – Toby Mak Sep 19 '19 at 10:25