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Based on historical data, I calculated the probability of hitting a four (a type of shot) in cricket in one ball to be 0.114 (11.4%) [total number of fours / total number of balls]. In this case, how would I calculate the probability of a certain player hitting F fours in B balls?

I tried simply multiplying the probability per ball by the number of balls, but this at times gives results far greater than 1 (when the number of fours is more than expected). Thanks for the help.

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Assuming the results of each ball is independent, what you want is described by the binomial distribution. If $p$ is the probability of a four on a given ball (note $p=0.114$ for you), then the probability of getting exactly $F$ fours in $B$ balls is $$\binom{B}{F}p^F (1-p)^{B-F}.$$

Here, $\binom{B}{F}$ is a binomial coefficient, equal to $\frac{B(B-1)(B-2)\ldots (B-F+1)}{F!}$.

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