Given that: $p$ is an odd prime, $a\geq 1,b \leq \frac{p-1}{2}$, and that $a \not\equiv b \pmod p$, show that $a^2 \not\equiv b^2 \pmod p$
Based on the second condition, I know that $a + b < p$ is true, which I think should be helpful, but I'm not sure how to use this.
I also tried to use the fact that $p = 2k + 1$, but again, I didn't find any luck with this.
I'm very new with congruences, so I really appreciate any help!