There is a huge debate on the internet on $48÷2(9+3)$. I figured if i wanted to know the answer this is the best place to ask.
I believe it is 2 as i believe it is part of the bracket operation in BEDMAS. http://www.mathway.com/ agrees with me. I also said if $48÷2*(9+3)$ was asked it would be $288$ which it agrees with as well. However wolframalpha says it is $288$ either way. A friend of mine (who is better at math) said theres no such thing as 'implicit multiplication', only shorthand so that is in fact done after the division (going left to right, not necessarily because division occurs before multiplication. But he didnt explicitly give a reasoning)
What is the answer and WHY?