The general property is, that for $S,T:H\rightarrow K$ bounded linear transformation between two Hilbert spaces, $S=T \Leftrightarrow \forall h\in H , \forall k\in K : \langle Sh,k\rangle = \langle Th,k\rangle$ . This is pretty simple to demonstrate since the first direction ($\Rightarrow$) is obvious, and for the second direction (using the fact the equality holds for all $k,h$ and the definition of the inner product): $\langle Sh,k\rangle - \langle Th,k\rangle = 0 \Rightarrow \langle (S-T)h,k\rangle =0 \Rightarrow (S-T)h = 0_K \Rightarrow (S-T) \equiv 0 (operator) \Rightarrow S=T$
I was told that for bounded linear operators, i.e $T,S : H\rightarrow H$, $H$ must be an Hilbert space over $\mathbb{C}$ in order for this property to hold ( $S=T\Leftrightarrow\forall h\in H:\langle Sh,h \rangle=\langle Th,h \rangle$). But I don't understand why does one need to specify whether $H$ is over $\mathbb{C}$ or $\mathbb{R}$ it seems to me that the general case holds for operators (over $\mathbb{R}$ and $\mathbb{C}$), does my above explanation for the general case misses some crucial point?