My situation is as follows. Can the expression from below be simplified using the concept of precalculus (i.e. via hand calculation) without requiring a calculator?
$$B=\sqrt{3} \tan 70^{\circ}- 4 \sin 70^{\circ}+1$$
What I attempted to do was to split the functions in a sum of $30^{\circ}+40^{\circ}$ since the trigonometric expressions for $30^{\circ}$ is 'known'.
By going into that route, I went through this as shown below:
$\sqrt{3} \tan\left(30+40\right)-4\sin\left(30+40\right)+1$
$\sqrt{3}\left(\frac{\tan(30)+\tan(40)}{1-\tan(30)\tan(40)}\right)-4(\sin(30)\cos(40)+\cos(30)\sin(40)+1$
$\sqrt{3}\left(\frac{\frac{1}{\sqrt 3}+\tan(40)}{1-\frac{1}{\sqrt 3}\tan(40)}\right)-4\left(\frac{1}{2}\cos(40)+\frac{\sqrt 3}{2}\sin(40)\right)+1$
$\sqrt{3}\left(\frac{1+\sqrt 3\tan(40)}{\sqrt 3-\tan(40)}\right)-2\cos(40)-2\sqrt {3} \sin(40)+1$
$\frac{\sqrt 3 + 3\frac{\sin(40)}{\cos(40)}}{\sqrt 3-\frac{\sin(40)}{\cos(40)}}-2\cos(40)-2\sqrt {3} \sin(40)+1$
$\frac{\sqrt 3 \cos (40) + 3 \sin(40)}{\sqrt 3 \cos (40)-\sin(40)}-2\cos(40)-2\sqrt {3} \sin(40)+1$
Then multiplying by $\sqrt 3 \cos (40)-\sin(40)$
$\frac{\sqrt 3 \cos (40) + 3 \sin(40)-2\sqrt 3\cos^2(40)+2\sin(40)\cos(40)-6\sin(40)\cos(40)+2\sqrt{3}\sin^2(40)+\sqrt 3 \cos (40)-\sin(40)}{\sqrt 3 \cos (40)-\sin(40)}$
$\frac{2\sqrt 3 \cos (40) + 2 \sin(40)-2\sqrt 3\cos(80)-2\sin(80)}{\sqrt 3 \cos (40)-\sin(40)}$
Now dividing by $4$ on the numerator:
$\frac{\frac{\sqrt 3}{2} \cos (40) + \frac{1}{2} \sin(40)-\frac{\sqrt 3}{2}\cos(80)-\frac{1}{2}\sin(80)}{(\frac{1}{4})\sqrt 3 \cos (40)-(\frac{1}{4})\sin(40)}$
$\frac{\frac{\sqrt 3}{2} \cos (40) + \frac{1}{2} \sin(40)-\frac{\sqrt 3}{2}\cos(80)-\frac{1}{2}\sin(80)}{(\frac{1}{4})\sqrt 3 \cos (40)-(\frac{1}{4})\sin(40)}$
$\frac{\sin 60 \cos (40) + \cos 60 \sin(40)-\sin 60\cos(80)-\cos 60\sin(80)}{(\frac{1}{2})\left((\frac{1}{2})\sqrt 3 \cos (40)-(\frac{1}{2})\sin(40)\right)}$
$\frac{\sin 60 \cos (40) + \cos 60 \sin(40)-\sin 60\cos(80)-\cos 60\sin(80)}{(\frac{1}{2})\left(\sin 60 \cos (40)-\cos 60\sin(40)\right)}$
$\frac{\sin 100-\sin 140}{(\frac{1}{2})\left(\sin 20\right)}$
Using prosthaphaeresis identities:
$\frac{\sin 80-\sin 40}{(\frac{1}{2})\left(\sin 20\right)}$
$\frac{2\cos 60 \sin 20 }{(\frac{1}{2})\left(\sin 20\right)}$
Finally...
$\frac{2\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) \sin 20 }{(\frac{1}{2})\left(\sin 20\right)}$
Therefore, the answer becomes:
$$B = 2$$
So far this is the answer which I got and it seems to check with what the calculator says it is.
But I'm not sure if this is an adequate method neither does it exist in a way to better simplify it or to ease calculations. Can somebody help me with an easier and quicker procedure? If possible, without geometry.