In this problem, we will investigate a new property which some sequences may have. Here is a new definition.
Definition: A sequence $\{a_n\}_{n=0}^∞$ is said to be Cauchy iff
$$\forall \varepsilon,\exists N\in\mathbb{N}s.t.\forall n\in\mathbb{N},\forall m\in\mathbb{N}(n,m\geq N\rightarrow|a_n-a_m|<\varepsilon)$$
Let $\{a_n\}_{n=0}^∞$ be a sequence of real numbers that converges to a number L. Show that $\{a_n\}_{n=0}^∞$ must be Cauchy
My attempts:
Proof.
Let $\{a_n\}_{n=0}^∞$ be a sequence of real numbers
Assume $\{a_n\}_{n=0}^∞$ converges to a number L where $L\in \mathbb{R}$
Show $\{a_n\}_{n=0}^∞$ must be Cauchy
By assumption we have
1.$\forall \varepsilon>0,\exists n_0\in\mathbb{N}s.t.\forall n\in\mathbb{N},(n\geq n_0\rightarrow L-\varepsilon<a_n<L+\varepsilon)$
WTS
$\forall \varepsilon>0,\exists N\in \mathbb{N}s.t.\forall n,m\in \mathbb{N},n,m\geq N\rightarrow a_m-\varepsilon<a_n<a_m+\varepsilon$
By 1. we have
$\forall \varepsilon>0,\exists N\in\mathbb{N}s.t.\forall n,m\in\mathbb{N},$
$n\geq N\rightarrow L-\varepsilon<a_n<L+\varepsilon $
$\wedge m\geq N\rightarrow L-\varepsilon<a_m<L+\varepsilon$
Since $2\varepsilon>0$, this also hold for $2\varepsilon$
Implies the following:
$\forall \varepsilon>0,\exists N\in\mathbb{N}s.t.\forall n,m\in\mathbb{N},$
$n\geq N\rightarrow\underbrace{L-2\varepsilon<a_n<L+2\varepsilon}_\alpha $
$\wedge m\geq N\rightarrow\underbrace{L-\varepsilon<a_m<L+\varepsilon}_\beta$
$\Leftrightarrow \forall \varepsilon>0,\exists N\in\mathbb{N}s.t.\forall n,m\in\mathbb{N},\underbrace{n,m\geq N}_p$
$\rightarrow \underbrace{L-\varepsilon<a_n<L+\varepsilon\wedge L-\varepsilon<a_m<L+\varepsilon}_q$
Since $\alpha -\beta$ have $-\varepsilon<a_n-a_m<\varepsilon$
That $a_m-\varepsilon<a_n<a_m+\varepsilon$
$\forall \varepsilon>0,\exists N\in\mathbb{N}s.t.\forall n,m\in\mathbb{N},\underbrace{n,m\geq N}_p$
$\rightarrow ((\underbrace{L-\varepsilon<a_n<L+\varepsilon\wedge L-\varepsilon<a_m<L+\varepsilon}_q)\rightarrow \underbrace{a_m-\varepsilon<a_n<a_m+\varepsilon}_r)$
Consider $((p\rightarrow (q\rightarrow r))\rightarrow(p\rightarrow r))$
It's only False when p is true, q is false and r is false.
However we had show $p\rightarrow q$ is true,
but when p is true and q is false that $p\rightarrow q$ is false
Therefore this False case can never happen by contradiction
In another word $((p\rightarrow q)\wedge(p\rightarrow (q\rightarrow r)))\rightarrow(p\rightarrow r)$ is a tautology
Implies $\forall \varepsilon>0,\exists N\in\mathbb{N}s.t.\forall n,m\in\mathbb{N},\underbrace{n,m\geq N}_p \rightarrow \underbrace{\vert a_n-a_m\vert<\varepsilon}_r$
Therefore $\{a_n\}_{n=0}^∞$ must be Cauchy
Is my proof correct? Any suggestion would be appreciated.