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I want to prove that $$\frac{(x-y)(x-z)}{x^2}+\frac{(y-x)(y-z)}{y^2}+\frac{(z-x)(z-y)}{z^2}\geq 0$$ for positive numbers $x,y,z$. I don't know how to even begin. I must say I'm not 100% certain the inequality always holds.

I tried the sort of factoring involved in proving schur's inequality, but it doesn't seem to work here. I also tried to distribute the denominators to obtain terms of form (1-y/x)(1-z/x) and then maybe substituting x/y=a, y/z=b, z/x=a etc

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    $\begingroup$ I solved your problem. If you want to see my solution, show your attempts. $\endgroup$ Jul 20, 2019 at 21:34
  • $\begingroup$ I tried the sort of factoring involved in proving schur's inequality, but it doesn't seem to work here. I also tried to distribute the denominators to obtain terms of form (1-y/x)(1-z/x) and then maybe substituting x/y=a, y/z=b, z/x=a etc $\endgroup$
    – John WK
    Jul 20, 2019 at 22:04
  • $\begingroup$ @AndrewV Thanks for outlining your attempts. However, many people reading this, including if they're doing review of posts for potential closure, will not necessarily always read the comments. As such, always put the text into the question text itself. Thanks. $\endgroup$ Jul 20, 2019 at 23:16

4 Answers 4

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After replacing $x$ on $\frac{1}{x}$ and similar we need to prove that $$\sum_{cyc}x(x-y)(x-z)\geq0,$$ which is Schur.

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Notice, that $$f(x,\,y,\,z)=\frac{(x-y)(x-z)}{x^2}+\frac{(y-x)(y-z)}{y^2}+\frac{(z-x)(z-y)}{z^2}= \frac{z^2y^2(x-y)(x-z)+x^2z^2(y-x)(y-z)+x^2y^2(z-x)(z-y)}{x^2y^2z^2}$$ Consider two case

  1. If $x=y=z$, then it is trivial that $f(x,\,y,\,z)=0$ .
    1. If $x\geq y\geq z$, (without loss of generality you can commute $x,y,z$) then $z^2y^2(x-y)(x-z) \geq0 $ and $x^2y^2(z-x)(z-y)\geq 0$ and $x^2z^2(y-x)(y-z)\leq 0$. But $|x^2y^2(z-x)(z-y)|>|x^2z^2(y-x)(y-z)|$. Therefor this sum is non-negative.
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Let $x\geq y\geq z$.

Thus, $$\sum_{cyc}\frac{(x-y)(x-z)}{x^2}\geq\frac{(x-z)(y-z)}{z^2}-\frac{(x-y)(y-z)}{y^2}=$$ $$=(y-z)\left(\frac{x-z}{z^2}-\frac{x-y}{y^2}\right)\geq0$$ because $y-z\geq0,$ $x-z\geq x-y$ and $\frac{1}{z^2}\geq\frac{1}{y^2}.$

Done!

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There is no loss of generality in assuming $0 < x \leq y \leq z$. Rewrite the inequality as $$\frac{(x-y)^2+(y-z)(x-y)}{x^2}+\frac{(y-x)(y-z)}{y^2}+\frac{(z-y)^2+(y-x)(z-y)}{z^2} \geq 0$$ and rearrange the terms as follows: $$\frac{(x-y)^2}{x^2}+\frac{(z-y)^2}{z^2}+(z-y)(y-x)\left(\frac{1}{x^2}+\frac{1}{z^2}-\frac{1}{y^2}\right)\geq 0.$$ Since $(z-y)(y-x)\geq 0$ by assumption, it suffices to prove $$\frac{1}{x^2}+\frac{1}{z^2}-\frac{1}{y^2} \geq 0,$$ which is equivalent to $$\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)^2+\left(\frac{y}{z}\right)^2-1\geq0.$$ But the latter is obviously true as $y/x \geq 1$.

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