I am very new to multivariate calculus and I came up for an incorrect "proof" that $$\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \frac{x^2}{x^2 + y^2} = 0.$$ I understand that the limit does not exist because approaching with $x=0$ and with $y=0$ yield different answers, however after several proofreads I do not understand where I have gone wrong with the "proof" given below.
We wish to show that for every $\epsilon$ there exists a $\delta$ such that $$\sqrt{x^2+y^2} < \delta \implies | \frac{x^2}{x^2 + y^2} | < \epsilon.$$ Choose $\delta = \min({\sqrt{\epsilon}, 1}).$ Now, because $\delta$ is at most 1,
$$\sqrt{x^2+y^2} < \delta \leq 1$$ $$1 < \frac{1}{x^2+y^2}$$ $$\sqrt{x^2+y^2} < \delta \implies \frac{x^2}{1} < \epsilon.$$
Substituting in $\delta = \sqrt{\epsilon}$, we obtain
$$x^2+y^2 < \epsilon \implies x^2 < \epsilon$$ which is true.