Let $f: \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$ be measurable function, $f \geq 0$, $f < \infty$ almost everywhere. Define $F_k = \{x \in \mathbb R: 2^k < f(x) \leq 2^{k+1}\}$. We have that $\displaystyle \{f(x) > 0\} = \text{supp} (f) = \bigcup_{k = -\infty}^{\infty}F_k$ and $F_k$ are disjoint.
Show that $f$ is integrable if and only if $\displaystyle \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}2^km(F_k) < \infty$.
What I did:
Define $g(x) = \displaystyle \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}2^k\chi_{F_k}(x)$ and suppose $f$ is integrable. $g$ is clearly integrable as it is a "simple" measurable function.
Since $g < f$ and both are integrable we have $\int g = \displaystyle \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}2^km(F_k) < \int f < \infty$
That was simple. Now suppose that $\displaystyle \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}2^km(F_k) < \infty$.
We have the inequality $g(x) < f \leq 2g(x)$ from the construction of $F_k$ and $g$. Thus $\int f \leq 2\int g < \infty$ which concludes the proof.
Is this correct? How can we tell $\int f$ even makes sense? if a function is bounded between 2 other integrable functions, is it integrable?