I am working through Axler's "Linear Algebra Done Right" and I am having trouble intuiting some of the meaning behind affine subsets. According to 2 exercises in the book we have that
(1) A subset $A$ is affine if and only if for any $v,w\in A$ and any scalar $\lambda$, $\lambda v+(1-\lambda)w\in A$
(2) Given vectors $v_1,...,v_n\in V$ the subset $A$ of $V$ given by $A=\{\sum\lambda_iv_i:\lambda_i\in F,\sum\lambda_i=1\}$ is affine
I more or less understand the definition of affine subsets (they're sort of like subspaces without the identity and they're either disjoint or equal, like equivalence classes) and I more or less understand the mechanics of the proofs of these problems, but I have no intuition for why these conditions imply affine-ness. What's so special about linear combinations the sum of the scalars of which is $1$?