In chapter 10 of Atiyah-Macdonald's book, an inverse system of topological abelian groups is defined as follows: a pair $((A_n),(\theta_{n}))$ where $(A_{n})$ is a sequence of topological abelian groups and $(\theta_{n})$ is a sequence of morphisms $\theta_{n+1}\colon A_{n+1} \longrightarrow A_{n}$. With no more restrictions, the inverse limit of an inverse system is defined as
$$\varprojlim A_{n} := \left\{(a_{n}) \in \prod_{n \in \mathbb{N}}A_{n} : \theta_{n+1}a_{n+1} = a_{n} \text{ for all } n \in \mathbb{N} \right\} $$
Is this definition equivalent to the usual definition of inverse limit, taking $(I,<)$ as the usual poset defined by the natural numbers? I'm aware that A-M ignores the projection morphisms, but what about the prerequisites in the usual definition of inverse system? That is,
1) $f_{ii}$ is the identity on $A_{i}$.
2) $f_{ik} = f_{ij}f_{jk}$ for all $i ≤ j ≤ k$.