I have been trying to prove or disprove following inequality:
$(1-x)^k \geq (1-x^k)$ $\forall 0 \leq x \leq 1 $ and $k \in \mathbb{N}$.
I thought about taking $\log$ on both sides and comparing but couldn't reach a conclusion. Does a straight application of binomial series work here? Could you please provide any hint about this?