Definition. Let $M$ a smooth manifold of dimension $n$. A funciton $f\colon M\to \mathbb{R}$ is said to be smooth at a point $p$ in $M$ if there is a chart $(U,\varphi)$ about $p$ in $M$ such that $f\circ\varphi^{-1}$ is smooth in $\varphi(p)$.
The definition of the smothness of a function $f$ at a point is independet of the chart $(U,\varphi)$, for if $f\circ \varphi^{-1}$ is smooth at $\varphi(p)$ and $(V,\psi)$ is any other chart about $p$ in $M$, then on $\psi(U\cap V)$, $$f\circ\psi^{-1}=(f\circ \varphi^{-1})\circ (\varphi\circ\psi^{-1}).$$
It is clear that $\varphi\circ\psi^{-1}$ is smooth in $\psi(p)$.
Question. Why also $\big(f\circ\varphi^{-1}\big)$ is smooth in $\psi(p)?$