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I am stuck on the same question as this - the Levi-Civita connection on a product of Riemannian manifolds. For convenience, I am putting the question here -

Let $M_1$ and $M_2$ be Riemannian manifolds, and consider the product $M_1\times M_2$, with the product metric. Let $\nabla^1$ be the Riemannian connection of $M_1$ and let $\nabla^2$ be the Riemannian connection of $M_2$. Part (a): Show that the Riemannian connection $\nabla$ of $M_1\times M_2$ is given by $\nabla_{Y_1+Y_2}(X_1+X_2) = \nabla_{Y_1}^1 X_1 + \nabla_{Y_2}^2 X_2$, where $X_i,Y_i\in \Gamma(TM_i)$.

I am wondering whether the result is even true.

Consider the case of $\mathbb{R}^2$ viewed as the product $\mathbb{R}\times\mathbb{R}$. Say we have vector fields $X = f_1(x,y) \frac{\partial}{\partial x} + f_2(x,y) \frac{\partial}{\partial y}$ and $Y = g_1(x,y) \frac{\partial}{\partial x} + g_2(x,y) \frac{\partial}{\partial y}$. The decompositon will be $X_1 = f_1(x,y) \frac{\partial}{\partial x}$, $X_2 = f_2(x,y) \frac{\partial}{\partial y}$ and $Y_1 = g_1(x,y) \frac{\partial}{\partial x}$, $Y_2 = g_2(x,y) \frac{\partial}{\partial y}$, which gives us $\nabla_{Y_1} X_1 = g_1 \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}$ and $\nabla_{Y_2} X_2 = g_2 \frac{\partial f_2}{\partial y}\frac{\partial}{\partial y}$

This means $\nabla_{Y_1} X_1 + \nabla_{Y_2} X_2 = g_1 \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x}\frac{\partial}{\partial x} + g_2 \frac{\partial f_2}{\partial y}\frac{\partial}{\partial y}$, but we know that $\nabla_{Y} X = \big( g_1 \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x} + g_2 \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial y}\big)\frac{\partial}{\partial x} + \big( g_1 \frac{\partial f_2}{\partial x} + g_2 \frac{\partial f_2}{\partial y}\big) \frac{\partial}{\partial y}$

Where am I going wrong?

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  • $\begingroup$ The definition you quoted says that the formula for $\nabla_{Y_1+Y_2}(X_1+X_2)$ is for $X_i,Y_i$ sections of the tangent bundle of $M_i$. In particular, the coefficient $f_1$ in $X_1$ should be a function of only $x$, and $f_2$ should be a function of only $y$. $\endgroup$ Commented May 8, 2019 at 4:15
  • $\begingroup$ I hope, of course, that the source of this definition includes an explanation of how vector fields $X_1$ on $M_1$ and $X_2$ on $M_2$ are to be regarded as vector fields on $M_!\times M_2$, which is where $X_1+X_2$ is supposed to live. $\endgroup$ Commented May 8, 2019 at 4:19
  • $\begingroup$ @AndreasBlass We evaluate the connection at a point, say $(p,q)$. My understanding is that $\nabla_{Y_1}X_1$ is to be calculated as $\nabla_{g_1(x,q)\frac{\partial}{\partial x}}(f_1(x,q)\frac{\partial}{\partial x})$, and similarly for $\nabla_{Y_2}X_2$. So, we view the coefficients as being dependent on one variable only by fixing the other variable. $\endgroup$
    – fgraderboy
    Commented May 8, 2019 at 4:39
  • $\begingroup$ @AndreasBlass We can view vectors at each point on the product as the sum of two vectors - one from the tangent space of $M_1$ and the other from $M_2$. So, at $(p,q)$, we assign the vector $X_1(p) + X_2(q)$. In this way, we obtain a vector field on the product from vector fields on the individual manifolds. The converse is not true, the information in a vector field on the product manifold is not necessarily contained in one vector field on $M_1$ and one on $M_2$. $\endgroup$
    – fgraderboy
    Commented May 8, 2019 at 4:50
  • $\begingroup$ Both of your comments are true, but they are only tangentially relevant to what you asked, why your calculation gave unexpected results. I still think the reason for that is that the formula you quoted is, as stated at the end of the quote, only about sums of a vector field $X_1$ on $M_1$ and a vector field $X_2$ on $M_2$ (both viewed as vector fields on $M_1\times M_2$ as in your first comment), not about arbitrary vector fields on $M_1\times M_2$. $\endgroup$ Commented May 8, 2019 at 12:17

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I dont know if my answer is of use, but hope it helps if somebody else stumbles into this question.

Considering $g = g_1 \oplus g_2$ the product metric in $M_1 \times M_2$ we know that there is an unique riemannian conection induced by the metric, so we can proceed by proving that the definition given in the problem is a compatible and symmetric conection. This is, to proof the two statements (using the notation of the question)

  • For $X_1,Y_1 \in \mathcal{X}(M_1)$ and $X_2,Y_2 \in \mathcal{X}(M_2)$ we have that \begin{equation} [X_1 + X_2,Y_1 + Y_2] = \nabla_{X_1 + X_2}(Y_1 + Y_2) - \nabla_{Y_1 + Y_2}(X_1 + X_2) \end{equation}

  • For $Z = Z_1 + Z_2 \in \mathcal{X}(M_1\times M_2)$ \begin{equation} (Z_1 + Z_2)g(X_1+X_2,Y_1+Y_2) = g(\nabla_{Z_1 + Z_2}(X_1+X_2),Y_1+Y_2) + g(X_1 + X_2, \nabla_{Z_1 + Z_2}(Y_1 + Y_2) \end{equation}

Which look like a straightforward computation, and then conclude by the unicity I mentioned above.

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