Show $$\lim_{h \to \ 0} \frac{f(x + 2h) - 2f(x+h) + f(x)}{h^{2}} = f''(x)$$
Proof:
By definition:
$$f'(x) = \lim_{h \to \ 0} \frac{f(x + h) - f(x)}{h}$$
Using this idea it would imply:
$$1)\ \ f''(x) = \lim_{h \to \ 0} \frac{f'(x + h) - f'(x)}{h}$$
As such it is required that I find an expression for $f'(x+h)$. This is where I'm not sure if the step I took is legitimate.
An expression for $f'(x + h)$ is:
$$f'(x+h) = \lim_{h \to \ 0} \frac{f(x + 2h) - f(x + h)}{h}$$
Combining this with the definition of $f'(x)$ and inserting it into 1) you arrive at: $$\lim_{h \to \ 0} \frac{f(x + 2h) - 2f(x+h) + f(x)}{h^{2}} = f''(x)$$
As required.
Concern: I feel a discomfort with this solution. Even though "mechanically" it worked out, if I am taking the limit as $h \rightarrow 0$ that would mean $x + 2h$ and $x + h$ both go to $x$. But I am attempting to use the idea that $x +2h$ goes to $x + h$. Perhaps it is a notation idea that I need to communicate better, but I feel it is larger than just that.