0
$\begingroup$

I have learned about the convolution between two functions, between a function and a distribution, and between two distributions. My problem is that I have difficulties to find what is the condition of existence of the convolution in each one of those cases. Can anyone help me please?

Kind regards

$\endgroup$
  • $\begingroup$ The convolution of two distributions is well-defined if their supports are bounded on the same side, see Gelfand and Shilov. $\endgroup$ – Maxim May 11 at 14:14

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.