I wanna show that the quotient of two Lipschitz functions is Lipschitz. I feel like it should fall out with some kind of basic inequility argument but am struggling with the details. Anyone wanna help?
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$f(x)\equiv 1$ and $g(x)=x$ are Lipschitz, but $f(x)/g(x)=1/x$ is not.
answered May 2, 2019 at 20:38
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$\begingroup$ Thanks! Figured out the proof of what I want :) $\endgroup$ Commented May 2, 2019 at 20:42