Why does $P(E) < P(F)$ mean that $E \subseteq F$ ?
My reasoning (using Venn diagrams):
It is seen clearly in the below picture that even if $P(E)<P(F)$, there is still some region in E that is not a part of F, So why is $E \subseteq F$ true?
Source if this information
Solution for a question from JEE Advanced 1998