I need some help understanding something from my textbook. In the book they are deriving a taylor polynomial approximation for log(1-t), the first thing they do is integrate log(1-t) from 0 to t.
What I don't understand is why are we integrating in the first place?
If I wanted to find the taylor polynomial representation for this function wouldn't I take the derivatives and construct it using the Taylor series formula?
Some help / explanation would be great