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Let $n$ be a positive integer, and let $m$ be an integer such that $a^m\equiv1\pmod{n}$ for every integer $a\ \epsilon\ (\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z)^*$. Show that $m$ is even.

I know that $a^{\phi(n)}\equiv1\pmod n$ by Euler's Theorem, so is this question then just about showing that $\phi(n)$ is even?

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    $\begingroup$ Well, just take $a=n-1$. $\endgroup$ – lulu Apr 10 at 15:05
  • $\begingroup$ it's supposed to be true for every $a\ \epsilon\ (\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z)$ $\endgroup$ – joseph Apr 10 at 15:06
  • $\begingroup$ Right. So in particular it must be true for $n-1$. (note: I think you meant to write "for every $a\in \left(\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z\right)^*$". it's obviously necessary to stick with $a$ relatively prime to $n$.). $\endgroup$ – lulu Apr 10 at 15:07
  • $\begingroup$ @lulu Same concept, I just think using $-1$ as the coset representative is more intuitive. $\endgroup$ – Don Thousand Apr 10 at 15:08
  • $\begingroup$ @DonThousand You are probably right about that...not sure why I went for $n-1$ instead. So, I agree. Just take $a=-1$. $\endgroup$ – lulu Apr 10 at 15:09
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As has been said in the comments, $a\equiv -1$ suffices. Because, modular arithmetic, obeys normal arithmetic rules mostly (otherwise it would be useless in diophantine equation analysis). $$(-1)^{2x+1}=-1$$ is one such rule. So m can't be odd, and work in this case. No need to get anything else involved.

Exception n=2 and n=1 though. Because then 1 and -1 are congruent.

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  • $\begingroup$ But $m$ can be odd if $\,n = 2,\,$ e.g. $\,a^1\equiv 1\pmod{\!2}\,$ for all $\,a\,$ coprime to $2$ $\ \ $ $\endgroup$ – Bill Dubuque Apr 10 at 17:56
  • $\begingroup$ okay yes mod 2 is a special case, because $1\equiv -1$ $\endgroup$ – Roddy MacPhee Apr 10 at 18:18

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