Is the following statement correct in the category of sets?
Let $X$ be any set. Then there exists a filtered small category $I$ and a functor $F:I\to \mathrm{Set}$ such that for all $i\in I$ the set $F(i)$ is finite, and such that $$ X \; = \; \mathrm{colim}_{i\in I} F(i) . $$
Are there references on results of this type in the literature?