I would like to know whether the following statement is true or not: there is some first-order formula $\varphi$ such that "$\varphi$ is valid in all finite structures" is true although not provable in ZFC (i.e., it is undecidable).
I have not been able to find anything similar in the literature, but on the other hand it seems to me that the proof I write next is OK.
Proof Sketch: By Trakhenbrot's Theorem, which is provable in ZFC, the set of finitely valid formulas is $\Pi_1$-complete. Thus, in ZFC we can prove that "there is some function $\sharp$ such that for every $\Pi_1$ arithmetical sentence $\varphi$ it holds that: $\varphi$ is true iff $\varphi^{\sharp}$ is finitely valid". In particular, if we take $\varphi$ as the $\Pi_1$-formula $Con(ZFC)$ (the one expressing the consistency of $ZFC$) we obtain (as a consequence of Gödel's Second Incompleteness Theorem) that "$Con(ZFC)^{\sharp}$ is finitely valid" is not provable (nor refutable) in $ZFC$.
Is this proof OK? Is the previous statement true? [Of course, all the time I assume $ZFC$ to be consistent]
In case the statement holds, I would like to know whether someone knows an explicit $\varphi$ with the previous property.
Addendum: I think that there has to be some wrong detail in the above proof, because I have not used the fact that $\sharp$ is computable. It seems to me that the mistake is done when I say: in ZFC we can prove that "there is some function $\sharp$ such that ...". I suppose that the existence of this function is not inside the ZFC model; due to the computability of $\sharp$ indeed what we know is that there is some syntactic procedure $\sharp$ such that in ZFC we can prove that "for every $\Pi_1$ arithmetical sentence $\varphi$ it holds that: $\varphi$ is true iff $\varphi^{\sharp}$ is finitely valid". The rest of the proof keeps as before.