Does the Chebychev Inequality Theorem apply to any & all probability distribution functions?

Thank you.



closed as off-topic by Kavi Rama Murthy, Clement C., Lee David Chung Lin, Shailesh, NCh Mar 24 at 10:52

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    $\begingroup$ You get the answer by reading the statement of the inequality. $\endgroup$ – Kavi Rama Murthy Mar 23 at 23:24

Correct me if I'm wrong but isn't this answerable from a quick google search ?

I've done such a search and found:

"The inequality has great utility because it can be applied to any probability distribution in which the mean and variance are defined"

This came from Wikipedia : Link https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chebyshev%27s_inequality

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    $\begingroup$ Wow... slightly embarrassing... didn’t read that one closely enough lol. Anyways, thank you Martin. It is appreciated sir. $\endgroup$ – SDH Mar 23 at 23:15
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    $\begingroup$ No worries; I learnt something from looking it up ! $\endgroup$ – Martin Hansen Mar 23 at 23:16

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