The Modus Ponens inference rule is generally expressed as:
$$ \begin{array}{rl} & P\rightarrow Q \\ & P \\ \hline \therefore & Q\end{array} $$
Is the below rule also considered to be Modus Ponens
?
$$ \begin{array}{rl} & P \lor \lnot Q \\ & Q \\ \hline \therefore & P\end{array} $$