Reading up about Bunyakovsky conjecture, it mentions that in order to verify that polynomial $$f(x)=c_0+c_1x+\dots+c_nx^n$$ represents coprime values, or more generically in order to find $\gcd\{f(d), d \geq 1\}$, it is said to be equivalent to represent $f(x)$ in a form $$ f(x)=a_0+a_1\binom{x}{1}+\dots+a_n\binom{x}{n} $$ and find value $\gcd(a_0,a_1,\dots,a_n)=\gcd\{f(d), d \geq 1\}$ instead. Can someone reference the source of this claim, ideally a proof?
I could not find it anywhere on this site or elsewhere on the internet. All I've been able to do was to play with the coefficients and by observation find out that $$ a_i = i!\sum_{k=i}^{n}{k\brace i}c_k, $$ where ${k\brace i}$ are Stirling numbers of the second kind, although I didn't prove that either (it is probably provable by induction, but it wasn't my goal).