I have just seen written that $(\frac{17}{101})$ = $(\frac{101}{17})$. But doesn't the law of quadratic reciprocity state that $(\frac{p}{q})$ = $(\frac{q}{p})$ if $p\equiv1 mod 4$ OR $q\equiv1mod4$?

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    $\begingroup$ In mathematics, "or" is almost always inclusive, so we allow for both conditions to hold. $\endgroup$ – Wojowu Mar 9 at 11:30

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