# If $A$ is infinite, $B$ is finite and $B \subset A$ and $C=A\setminus B$. Is there bijection between A and C? [duplicate]

Here is my reasoning so far: $$A$$ is a infinite set and $$B$$ is a finite subset of $$A$$, therefore $$B\subset A$$.

If $$C=A\setminus B$$ that means that $$C$$ also is infinite and also, $$C\subset A$$.

Though, how could one prove that there is a bijection between $$A$$ and $$C$$?

• For your reference, 1 and 2. – LE Anh Dung Feb 27 '19 at 14:10
• @LeAnhDung Thanks, exactly what I needed. – user615771 Feb 27 '19 at 14:14