Recently I came to know that for $n\geq 2$, the open ball $B(0,1) = \{z\in \mathbb{C}^n: |z|<1\}$ and the polydisc $\Delta(0;1) = \{z\in \mathbb{C}^n: |z_j|<1, j=1,\ldots, n\}$ are not biholomorphic.
This made me wonder whether $B(0,1) = \{x\in \mathbb{R}^n: ||x||<1\}$ and the polydisc $\Delta(0;1) = \{x\in \mathbb{R}^n: |x_j|<1, j=1,\ldots, n\}$ are diffeomorphic?
I know that the product topology on $\mathbb{R}^n$ is equivalent to the metric topology, i.e. topology generated by open polydiscs is same as the one generated by open balls. Does this imply that $B(0,1)$ is homeomorphic to $\Delta(0;1)$?