I have a question on the following definition in the Forster:
I don't get the part where it says "Clearly a weak wolution $f$ is a proper, i.e., meromorphic function, solution precisely if $f$ is holomorphic on $X_D$".
First, I don't get why he says "proper i.e. meromorphic", proper and meromorphic functions aren't the same, are they?
Also I would say $f$ is then only a solution on $X_D$ not on the whole of $X$. Why is $f$ then a solution on all of $X$?