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As part of an assignment I would like to show directly from the definition of cellular homology that if $X$ is a CW-complex then: $$H^{\mathrm{Cell}}_{n+1}(S(X);\mathbb{Z})\cong H^{\mathrm{Cell}}_n(X;\mathbb{Z})$$ That is I'm supposed to find a CW-structure on the unreduced suspension of X and show it's cellular homology is the same as the cellular homology of X without applying theorems like Mayer-Vietoris or using in advance that it's true for singular homology.

However, I am aware of the proof that $H^{\mathrm{Cell}}_n(X;\mathbb{Z})\cong H_n(X;\mathbb{Z}) $ which can be shown directly from the definition so this at least can be used.

For us, the chain complex of a CW-complex $Y$ is denoted $C_{n}^{CW}(Y)=H_n(Y^n,Y^{n-1})$ with chain maps coming from compositions in long exact sequences of pairs as in the definition in p.139 in Hatcher's book.

The CW-structure that I guessed we should use is induced by the suspension. for any $n$-cell in $X$ we would have two $n$-cells in $S(X)$.

Will appreciate feedback, stuck on this for quite some time without progress.

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There is a cell structure on a product (see appendix of Hatcher) of cell complexes, with cells given by pairs of cells of the factors. This way in particular you get a cell structure on $X\times I$. If you use the standard cell structure on $I$ then the map $X\times I \to SX$ is the quotient by a subcomplex, which also has a natural cell structure.

The differentials behave as you expect, so you should be able to work out the cellular chain complex and its homology. The idea is something like “$d(e\times f) = de\times f \pm e\times df$ But $df=0$ because of the quotient by a subcomplex step.”

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  • $\begingroup$ Great, I was not aware that quotient by a subcomplex has a natural cell structure, and it seems to make some of the reasoning cleaner. Could you elaborate on the second part? How would you go about showing what you mentioned and how it implies the needed isomorphism? $\endgroup$
    – user7610
    Commented Feb 20, 2019 at 15:49
  • $\begingroup$ $e \times df = 0$ because these are the cells killed in the quotient. (Here $f$ could be the 1-cell of $I$ and $df$ is the 0-cells.) This shows you that the differential on $SX$ works "just like" the one on $X$. The dimension shift is because $f$ has dimension 1, so that $\dim e\times f = \dim e + 1$. $\endgroup$
    – Ben
    Commented Feb 20, 2019 at 15:55
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    $\begingroup$ @user7610 This is just a way to think about what's going on - as for carefully showing things or writing a proof, I think this is best as an exercise for you to try. Any of the facts and information necessary should be findable in Hatcher. Let us know your progress if you're getting stuck, and we can try to help. $\endgroup$
    – Ben
    Commented Feb 20, 2019 at 15:59
  • $\begingroup$ Ok, then I understand this will give us an isomorphism on the level of the chain complex, which then implies an isomorphism of the homologies. I did not consider this initially. Thanks. $\endgroup$
    – user7610
    Commented Feb 20, 2019 at 16:14
  • $\begingroup$ @user7610 No prob! $\endgroup$
    – Ben
    Commented Feb 20, 2019 at 16:23

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